Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?
Last Updated: 17.06.2025 00:01
You'll usually find your answer there.
There's no rule.
If you're curious about why a word is spelled the way it's spelled, your first recourse should be etymonline dot com.
Back in the day (circa 1300), it was written <plesen>.
Whence the <ea> I cannot say but some other words that were spelled <ai> in French are spelled <ea> in English: aise → ease, graisse → grease, fait → feat.
While you may reasonably ask why words are spelled the way they're spelled, it makes no sense to ask why they're pronounced the way they're pronounced.
How do you feel about the impending end of what Donald Trump calls "the Green New scam"?
What's (not “whats”) the rule?
Words are pronounced the way that they're pronounced.
Pleas is spelled <pleas> because it's the plural of pleas.
Can you provide a list of cities named after animals and the animals they were named after?
Please is an anglicization of the French word plaisir.